How can Christ say "my
iniquity"?
A Presbyterian from SC, wrote me...
"I'm really more
interested in what you have to say about the first couple of verses of Psalm 51:
"Have mercy on me, O God, according to your steadfast love; according to
your abundant mercy, blot out my transgressions. Wash me thoroughly from my
iniquity and cleanse me from my sin!"
God would have answered any prayer that
Jesus prayed. God did not forgive Jesus's sins. Jesus was punished for our sins.
None of the sins placed on Jesus were blotted out, and He was not washed of our
sins or cleansed from them."
My response: Christ in NO WAY had sin
infused into Him on the cross. He ONLY had sins imputed into his account.
In the Psalms, the imputation of the elect's sin can be more clearly
seen in some verses than others verses. For example, Psalm 18 (which is applied
to Christ in Rom 15:9) says " For I was upright with Him and kept myself from my
guilt." (v23) The Hebrew word for "upright" -- tamiym -- means " without
blemish, complete, full, perfect, sincerely (-ity), sound, without spot,
undefiled, upright(-ly), whole." Thus, the American Standard translates this
verse, "For I was PERFECT with Him".
I believe that on the cross, Christ
was "without blemish, complete, full, perfect, sincerely (-ity), sound, without
spot, undefiled, upright(-ly), whole."
And because he was PERFECT in His
character, Christ was PRESERVED "from His guilt" (the sins of the elect in His
account). His character and conduct was in NO WAY corrupted by the imputation of
the elect's sin in His account. His character was preserved the whole time and
remained PERFECT and without blemish.
The sins of the elect "passed
over" Christ's head, "surrounded" Him, and were "before" him. "... INIQUITIES
HAVE PASSED OVER MY HEAD; as a HEAVY BURDEN too heavy for me." (Psalm 38:4) "For
EVILS HAVE SURROUNDED ME until there is no number" (Psalm 40:12) "...sin is ever
BEFORE ME." (Psalm 51:5).
The sins of the elect were a BURDEN -- they
were in Christ's account -- but they were NEVER infused into Christ's character.
The sins were always OUTSIDE His character.
So when Christ says "my
iniquity" he is referring to the sins of the elect in His account. I do NOT take
"my iniquity" to literally mean that Christ sinned Himself. We cannot read the
Psalms literally like this, because prophecy cannot be taken literally, and the
Psalms are prophecy. Just as Isaiah 42 doesn't literally mean that Christ was
"blind" and "deaf", the Psalms don't literally mean that Christ had iniquity.
Here is some of Isaiah 42...
Isaiah 42:
1 ¶ Behold My Servant; I
will uphold Him; My Elect in whom My soul delights! ...
18 ¶ O deaf ones,
hear! And O blind ones, look to see!
19 WHO IS BLIND but My servant? OR
DEAF, as My messenger whom I send? WHO IS BLIND as he who is at peace, and blind
as Jehovah's servant?
21 Jehovah is delighted for His righteousness'
sake;
My comment: Isaiah 42 is saying that the unregenerate Jews would
think of Christ as "blind" and "deaf". Of course, Christ was NOT literally blind
or deaf. Isaiah 42 is prophecy and not to be taken literally.
In the
same way, if a Psalm says that Christ had "iniquity" it doesn't literally mean
he sinned himself. It must mean he had the elect's iniquity in His account. The
KJV translation of Psalm 65:3 is interesting -- "Iniquities have prevailed
against Me, my transgressions....".
The sin was OUTSIDE Christ and NOT
infused into him!
Let me conclude by saying that I myself was once caught
up in this heresy (of thinking the Psalms are about David's experiences). It
caused me to doubt my salvation, since I thought that God took his presence away
from believers, and had wrath and fury upon them (Psa 88 and
101)
However, one day I realised that the Psalms are not about David's
experiences. The Apostles only apply the Psalms to Christ. And ever since then I
have had full assurance. I recognise that all those passages in the Psalms which
talk about God "hiding his face", "withdrawing his presence", "pouring his
fury", "having wrath" are talking about Christ on the cross (Heb 5:7).
My
hope is that other Calvinists will stop believing John Calvin's view (that the
Psalms are about David's experiences), and start believing what the Apostles
say!
Then they will have full assurance of salvation! They will be
COMFORTED by the Psalms, because they will see CHRIST SUFFERING in the Psalms.
And thus they will stop thinking that they should undergo the experiences
described in the Psalms! They will come to understand that CHRIST WAS FORSAKEN
SO THAT THEY WOULD NEVER BE. "Being justified by faith WE HAVE PEACE WITH GOD"
"There is NO CONDEMNATION for those in Christ Jesus."
But the person in
the Psalms did NOT have peace with God, and WAS condemned.
That person in
these Psalms must therefore be Jesus Christ on the cross under God's
wrath.
"who in the days of His flesh was OFFERING BOTH PETITIONS AND
ENTREATIES to Him being able to save Him from death, with STRONG CRYING AND
TEARS, and being heard from His godly fear." (Hebrews 5:7)
Is not Hebrews
5:7 a perfect summary of all the Psalms where the Psalmist is
forsaken?
Christ was indeed offering petitions and entreaties with strong
crying and tears. Stop looking for David, and SEE CHRIST ALONE IN ALL THOSE
PSALMS. Unless, you think you can interpret the Psalms better than the
infallible Apostles did?