CAN GOD BE KNOWN APART FROM THE BIBLE?

Telling unbelievers, "Deep down you know God" is the source of almost all heresy.

When somebody thinks they know God "deep down" apart from Scripture, they will DISREGARD the Bible. After all, who needs the Bible when you can know God without it?

When people think they can know about God OUTSIDE the Bible, they will CRITICISE the Bible.

Ask yourself. Which man will pay more attention to the Bible?

1) The man who believes God is revealed in the Bible + Nature + Innately

OR

2) The man who believes God is ONLY revealed in the Bible

The man who believes he knows God WITHOUT the Bible will DISREGARD the Bible, since he will think "I know God without the Bible... Why do I need it?"

Try teaching any Arminian the doctrine of reprobation. You say to them, "Mr. Arminian, God hates the non-elect. He has chose to send them to hell, even before they were born! Read Romans 9.. God hated Esau before his birth!"

What will the Arminian say? He will probably say that he "feels" your God is "evil". And that your God is "unfair".

The Arminian will criticise the Bible by his feelings. Because the Arminian thinks he knows God WITHOUT the Bible, he will ALWAYS be lead astray by his own ideas. He assumes he can know God by looking at creation and innately. And therefore, he always disregards the teaching of the Scripture. Who needs the Bible, if we can know God without it? 


A lot of people tell me "everyone believes in God". But this is simply false! Sure people might believe in a "god" but their god is NOT the God of the Bible!!!

In fact, if someone does not believe the gospel, then they have NO IDEA who the True God is!

Without belief in the gospel, a man doesn't even have a conscience! He is totally ignorant of the truth."

Here are some points from the Scripture...

 

1) God writes His Law on a man's heart at conversion (Jeremiah 31:33). Now, why does God have to do that? Doesn't it mean that the man didn't have the Law on his heart in the first place? So the unregenerate must NOT have God's Law on their hearts. Otherwise why does God have to write it on their hearts at conversion?

"
After those days, declares Jehovah, I will put My Law in their inward parts, and I will write it on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people." (Jeremiah 31:33)

2) BY FAITH believers understand that the True God created the universe (Hebrews 11). That means that in order to perceive that God created the universe, you must HAVE FAITH. Doesn't that mean that unbelievers (those without faith), cannot perceive that God created the universe?

"By faith we understand the ages to have been framed by the Word of God, so that the things seen should not come into being out of things that appear." (Hebrews 11:3)

3) Oxen know their masters, but unregenerate Israel did not know God (Isaiah 1). In other words, animals have more understanding of their environment than the unregenerate do about God. Do unregenerate men perceive the True God any more than the animals?

" The ox knows his owner, and the ass his master's manger, but Israel does not know; My people have not understood." (Isaiah 1:3)
"The stork in the heavens knows her seasons, and the turtledove and the swallow and the thrush observe the time of their coming. But My people do not know the judgment of Jehovah." (Jer8:7)



GOD IS NOT REVEALED IN NATURE. NEITHER CAN HE BE KNOWN "INNATELY"

Now, I certainly AGREE that God HAS revealed Himself to the unregenerate Gentiles to CONDEMN them. "The unseen things of Him ... are clearly seen ... for them to be without excuse." But the question is -- HOW did God reveal himself to the Gentiles? Was He revealed in nature? Or can he be known apart from Scripture?


When the Bible says, "the heavens declare the glory of God" it means that the GOSPEL is throughout the world, declaring God's glory.

"And I saw another angel flying in mid-HEAVEN, having an EVERLASTING GOSPEL to proclaim to those dwelling on the earth, even TO EVERY NATION and tribe and tongue and people, saying in a great voice...." (Revelation 14:6)

Of course, this verse is metaphorical. By angel, John must mean messenger. He must be saying that the prophets and preachers proclaimed the gospel "TO EVERY NATION".

Also, Paul in Romans 10 says that Psalm 19 is talking about the UNIVERSAL preaching of the GOSPEL.

Romans 10:16-18 - "And how may they preach if they are not sent? ... Then faith is of hearing, and hearing through the Word of God. But I say, Did they not hear? Yes, rather, "INTO ALL THE EARTH THEIR VOICE WENT OUT, and to the ends of the world their words." LXX-Psa. 18:5; MT-Psa. 19:4

Psalm 19 is saying that the voices of the prophets were heard from "the heavens" (a metaphor for the 'everywhere') and "into all the earth their voice went out, and to the ends of the world their words."(v4)

This is NOT my interpretation of Psalm 19. It is the Apostle Paul's !!! See Romans 10:18


JEHOVAH CAN ONLY BE REVEALED BY WORDS



As Bildad the Gentile says, the Gentiles knew about Jehovah by the Law which was handed down by word of mouth. Bildad says,

Job 8:8 ¶ For now ASK OF THE FORMER GENERATIONS , and prepare to the search of their FATHERS;  Shall they not TEACH YOU, speak to you, and bring forth words out of their heart? Job 20: 4 Do you  KNOW THIS FROM OF OLD, FROM THE SETTING OF MAN ON EARTH , that the exulting of the wicked is near an end , and the joy of the ungodly is for a moment? He swallows wealth, but vomits it; God drives it out from his belly.This is the evil man's portion from God, and the inheritance of his word from God. Job 15: 17 I will tell you; hear me, and I will declare this that I have seen; that which WISE MEN HAVE TOLD and have NOT HIDDEN FROM THEIR FATHERS ; All the days of the wicked he is laboring in pain; because he stretched out his hand against God; and he acts mighty against the Almighty.

Notice, that the "former generations", "wise men", and "fathers" had passed on by word of mouth that 1) "the exulting of the wicked is near an end" 2) God drives vomit out of his belly (this is his "inheritance of his word from God")

Also, note that Bildad says, "I will tell you; hear me, and I will declare this that I HAVE SEEN ... All the days of the wicked he is laboring in pain; because he stretched out his hand against God " (Job 15:17,20)

Not only had information about God and His Law been handed down to Bildad, but he had also witnessed the wrath of God himself on his fellow Gentiles too.

Indeed, the fact that there is a wrathful God who punishes transgressors has been always been known among all Genitles. As Bildad the Gentile says, Gentiles have " KNOW THIS FROM OF OLD, FROM THE SETTING OF MAN ON EARTH" (Job 15:18)

In other words, the Gentiles did not only know about the idea of a divine intelligent Creator. They also heard about the fact that God is righteous, wrathful and has a moral Law.


In other words, God did not leave the Gentiles to their own wisdom to find out his attributes. " the world by wisdom did not know God" (1 Cor 1:21)  He must have assisted them with VERBAL REVELATION.



And we also know that "through Law is full knowledge of sin." (Romans 3:19)

So ALL men are without excuse for their sin and unbelief.  But how do they know their deeds are sinful?  Well,  "through Law is full knowledge of sin." (Romans 3:19)

So the Gentiles were are condemned, because they heard the Law, and transgressed it. That's why they are condemned for their personal sins. The had the Law explained to thema, yet they transgressed anyway. They are without excuse!


ROMANS 1

What about Romans 1:20? "For the unseen things of Him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things made [poiema]"

 

God has been known among the heathens SINCE "the creation of the world". But was he known by the "things that are made [poiema]"?

 

The word poiema is found thirty times in the Greek version of the Old Testament. Except for one occurrence it translates the Hebrew word ma'aseh, "deed" or "work". In one exception it translates the Hebrew po'al, "doing", "deed" or "work".  (1)

 

The noun poiema is in the plural. In classical Greek the word is used in the plural to refer to works, to poems, to fiction, deeds or acts -- i.e., anything made or done. (2)

 

(1) and (2) are taken from the Wycliffe Bible Commentary 1962, p1186 

 

 

Clearly, there are several ways of translating Romans 1:20.

 

Instead of translating it, God was known "by the things made [poiema]", it could be translated -- God was known "by the things done [poiema]".

 

THOUGHTS ON ROMANS 1

God has revealed Himself to the unregenerate Gentiles to CONDEMN them. "The unseen things of Him ... are clearly seen ... for them to be without excuse."

In this passage, Paul implies that if God was not revealed among then Gentiles, the Gentiles would have an excuse. Christ Himself makes this point with the Pharisees. " If I came not and speak to them, they had no sin. Yet now they have no pretense concerning their sin." (John 15:22). Christ is saying that IF there is no revelation, then there is no condemnation. The darkness can only be condemned by the light.

Thus, if God had not revealed Himself to the Gentiles, then He would be unjust in punishing them for their sins. "For where no Law is, there is no transgression." Paul says the ONLY way he knew that lust was sin was BY THE LAW. "By the Law is the knowledge of sin." Of course the Gentiles did not have the Law of Moses. But they DID have ENOUGH of the Moral Law to be condemned as rebellious sinners. Paul notes that " those who, recognizing the just statute of God, that those committing such things are deserving of death, not only are doing them, but are endorsing, also, those who are committing them." (Concordant Literal). The Gentiles KNEW ABOUT the just statutes of God.  God DID reveal Himself to them "FOR THEM TO BE WITHOUT EXCUSE."


Now, the question is raised -- how did God communicate this information to the Gentiles? Paul says  "For the unseen things of Him from the creation [ktisis ] of the world are clearly seen..."

As you are well aware, I don't think Paul is saying that the Gentiles knew about God by looking at trees and rocks. I think he is saying that *from the beginning of creation* or *from the foundations of the world*, Gentiles have known about the True God. Otherwise, how do you make sense of Hebrews 11? It's says that it is BY FAITH that we know that the worlds were framed by the Word of God and not from the things that do appear. This would mean that unregenerate Gentiles -- without faith -- CANNOT possess the Scriptural knowledge that the worlds were created. Of course, they will HEAR the truth OUTWARDLY, but they do not know it internally in their conscience. The doctrine of creation is NOT obvious. Only God can reveal it to man.

This is the right time to return to the original question -- how did God communicate this information to the Gentiles? Paul says  "For the unseen things of Him from the creation [ktisis] of the world are clearly seen..."

There are similar expressions in the New Testament to Paul's phrase, "from the creation of the world". Here are four samples --

"But from the beginning of creation [ktisis ] "God made them male and female." Gen. 1:27 (Mark 10:6).

"...during the last days scoffers will come walking according to their own lusts, and saying, Where is the promise of His coming? For from which time the fathers fell asleep, all things remain so from the beginning of creation [ ktisis ]." (2 Pet 3:3-4).

Notice also that the expression, "from the creation of the world" is very similar to the phrase, "from the foundation of the world."

"Jesus spoke all these things in parables to the crowds, and He did not speak to them without a parable,
so that was fulfilled that spoken through the prophet, saying: "I will open My mouth in parables; I will speak out things hidden from the foundation of the world." Psa. 78:2" (Matthew 13:34-35)

"And all those dwelling in the earth will worship it, those of whom the names had not been written in the Book of Life of the Lamb having been slain from the foundation of the world ... And those dwelling on the earth will marvel, the ones whose names have not been written on the Book of Life from the foundation of the world, seeing the beast, that it was a thing, and is not, yet now is." (Revelation 13:8, 17:8)

I hope it's clear from the Scripture above what Paul means when he says, "For the unseen things of Him from the creation [ktisis] of the world are clearly seen from the things that are made...". He's saying that it is from the BEGINNING of creation that men have known about the True God. It's from the foundations of the world that God's truth has been manifested among men.

So, what does Paul mean when he says "the unseen things of Him .... are clearly seen from the things that are made [poiEma]". The Greek word poiEma only occurs twice in the New Testament. The other place is Ephesians 2:10.

"for we are His workmanship [poiEma], created in Christ Jesus unto good works" (LITV)

" For His achievement are we, being created in Christ Jesus for good works." (Concordant Literal translation)

At this point, I'd like to post the Concordant Literal translation of Romans 1. Whilst I in NO WAY endorse the other writings of Concordant Publishing, their translations are remarkably literal.

18 For God's indignation is being revealed from heaven on all the irreverence and injustice of men who are retaining the truth in injustice,
19 because that which is known of God is apparent among [en] them, for God manifests it to them.
20 For His invisible attributes are descried from the creation of the world, being apprehended by His achievements, besides His imperceptible power and divinity, for them to be defenseless,
21 because, knowing God, not as God do they glorify or thank Him, but vain were they made in their reasonings, and darkened is their unintelligent heart. (
http://www.concordant.org/version/index.html )

The translation of the 19th verse seems justified if we look at other Scripture where the Greek word en is used in a similar context to Romans 1. " That which is known of God is apparent among [en] them, for God manifests it to them." Surely, God does not reveal himself INSIDE the minds of the unregenerate !! No more than the Kingdom of Heaven was inside the unregenerate Pharisees---

" And being questioned by the Pharisees ...He answered them and said, ... the kingdom of God is IN [ en] YOUR MIDST" (LITV, Luke 17:20:21)

Thus, as revelation was known AMONG the unregenerate Jews, so it was AMONG (not inside!) the Gentiles. Both had it "in their midst", and will be held accountable.

There is a similiar use of the Greek in Luke chapter 1. Mary was blessed among [en] women. Likewise the truth is known among [en] the Gentiles.

"And entering, the angel said to her, .... You are blessed AMONG [en] women!" (LITV, Luke 1:28).

To sum up -- the True was God known AMONG the Gentiles by His achievements and His Moral Law. This means that ALL Gentiles are condemned for disobeying God's revealed will. If they did not have the revelation, they would not have been condemned. But God was MANIFESTED among them by the spread of information (by word of mouth, preachers, dispersed Jews, proselyte Gentiles), i.e. the spread of Scriptural information. The darkness IS condemned by the light.

And remember how I pointed out the similarity with Christ's reasoning. He said, " If I came not and speak to them, they had no sin. Yet now they have no pretense concerning their sin." (John 15:22). Well, I'd like to put this verse in the context of another two verses from John.

In the first passage, Christ states that the Jews knew about the True God:

"Then teaching, Jesus cried out in the temple, even saying, You both know Me, and you know from where I am. And I have not come from Myself, but He is true, the One having sent Me, whom you do not know." (John 7:28).

This is similar to what Paul states about the Gentiles in Romans 1. Perhaps, he could have said something like this to the Gentiles: "You have known about the True God ... His knowledge was manifested among you from the start of time ... AND YOU ARE WITHOUT EXCUSE for your wicked response to his revelation..."

Yet, in another sense, Christ could say that the Jews did NOT know God (and Paul could likewise say that the Gentiles "knew not God.").

"Then they said to Him, Where is your father? Jesus answered, You neither know Me, nor My Father. If you had known Me, then you also would have known My Father." (John 8:19).

The Pharisees claimed to believe in "The Father", but Christ emphatically denies they know about Him at all. Keeping in mind Christ's previous statements, He must be saying that the Pharisees were INTERNALLY darkened -- they did not have the Holy Spirit in their consciences to convict them of the truth.

And it was no better with the unregenerate Gentiles. Indeed, Paul said that prior to their conversions, the Galatians , "...indeed, NOT KNOWING GOD, you served as slaves to the ones by nature not being gods."

Without the doctrine of inspiration, you can have no knowledge of God abiding in your mind. You can only have opinions and speculations about what you call "God." The Holy Spirit is required to SEAL, WITNESS and CONVICT a person of the PROPOSITIONS of Scripture in order for that person to have the knowledge of God abiding in their minds. "He that believes God has the witness in Himself ... has set to His seal that God is true ..." And because saving faith is always a SURPRISING CHANGE OF MIND, when an elect sinner is converted they KNOW IT WITHOUT A DOUBT. "They shall hear a voice coming behind them in the desert ..." and the voice of God is the words of Scripture.

This is the basis of assurance of salvation. Since an elect sinner is TOTALLY in the dark of God's existence (in terms of KNOWING it with certainty), then when the LIGHT of the gospel shines into his mind for the first time, he will know that he is justified by Christ's work. After all, God has certified that EVERYONE believing the gospel record "IS justified," "IS born of God," and "will NOT come into judgment."

John 5:24 "Truly, truly, I say to you, The one who hears My Word, and BELIEVES the One who has sent Me, HAS EVERLASTING LIFE, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life."

In John 5:24, you can see God JOINING together BELIEF and JUSTIFICATION. Everyone who believes the facts of the gospel, "does not come into judgment."  Now, according to the Apostle John, this declaration -- that believers are justified -- is THE WITNESS.

"And this is the witness: that God gave us everlasting life, and this life is in His Son." (1 John 5:11)

Notice that John uses the word, "us". He gave "us" -- believers -- everlasting life. In other words, if someone does NOT know they are a believer, they cannot say, "God have given me / us everlasting life." They are not confessing full assurance of salvation, like the Apostle John did. They do not have the faith of the Apostles. And anyone without the FAITH OF THE APOSTLES is damned. Peter ONLY wrote to those, who had "obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ." (2 Peter 1:1, KJV)

If your assurance does not match that of the Apostles, you are lost. You are calling God a liar. God says that ALL believers will be saved, and you are saying, "I'm a believer, but I do not know that I'm saved." Well, God says EVERYONE who believes that Christ was risen from the dead IS SAVED (Romans 10). Clearly, you are IGNORANT of this promise.

"The one not believing God has made Him a liar, because he has not believed in the witness which God has witnessed concerning His Son." (1 John 5: 10).

GORDON CLARK’S FUNDAMENTAL ERROR

Perhaps you've read Gordon Clark. I have. And I think Clark was right about a lot things. For instance, I'd agree with him that faith in Christ is simply intellectual assent to the propositions of the gospel.


This raises an interesting question.

Can someone believe the gospel, and not know they are a believer? In other words, if faith is such a simple thing as merely believing Christ's words, then ... can someone have faith, and doubt their salvation?

Clark said that believers can doubt their salvation. In his commentary on the Westminster Confession he agrees that a believer's assurance can be "diminished" and "shaken". In other words, Clark affirmed that a believer could doubt whether or not they are a believer.

 

Something is wrong here. If a believer assents to the gospel -- that Christ's righteousness is on all that believe -- then the believer must know that he has the righteousness. If a believer could doubt their salvation, he must either 1) not be sure whether or not he believes or 2) know he believes, but doubt his salvation. Now, if someone is not sure if they believe, they are an agnostic. And secondly, if a believer could believe but doubt their salvation, then they must think it's possible to believe and be lost.

 

To use an analogy. Can someone be in the light of the sun, and doubt they are in the light? In the same way, can someone be in the light of the gospel, and not know they are in the light?

 

Sadly, Clark said that the unregenerate have some light. And this made Clark doubt his salvation. After all, he must have thought, "even if I am in the light....I could still be unregenerate". This is Clark's one major presuppositional error. He said that unregenerate people naturally know God. And this meant, he was never sure whether or not he was "just another unregenerate man".

GHC said the unregenerate man naturally knows 1) that there is a holy God, 2) that God is eternal, 3) that God is good, 4) that God is creator, 5) that God has laws etc. So according to Clark, an unregenerate man already believes 50% of the gospel. Therefore Clark could never be sure if he was not another unregenerate man who had used his 50% of the gospel and reasoned his way into the rest. Clark could never be sure if he reasoned His way into the righteousness from his innate knowledge.   Let me contrast Clark with my own position. I affirm that unregenerate man has no innate knowledge of God, so I never worry "Am I unregenerate?" Because I think "I have the knowledge of the righteousness of God. Therefore I am saved. Since unregenerate man has no knowledge of God innately, I cannot be unregenerate."   Poor Clark!! He said unbelievers had the knowledge of God. Thus, he could never know whether or not he was saved. After all, he could could just be another unregenerate person reasoning with their "innate knowledge" into the gospel.   We must deny the unregenerate any innate knowledge of God. That is the only way assurance is possible.   Naturally, men know nothing of God. Their consciences "are seared as with a hot iron" and they say in their hearts "there is no God." We are born as Atheists, and naturally live "without Christ ... without faith, without God in the world." Calling good evil, and evil good, men have no understanding or any light of truth in their consciences. The "light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it." Even unconverted Paul (Saul) who was "home-schooled" (so to speak) with the oracles of God, did not know or understand that murdering Christians was evil. "Being ignorant I did it in unbelief." (1 Tim1:13). 

Conversion from this state is a change of mind. For the first time, God manifests Himself in a person's conscience, convicting their minds that Jesus is the Christ. "Because it is God who said, "Out of darkness Light shall shine," who shone in our hearts to give the brightness of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face [person] of Jesus Christ." The truth comes totally unexpected and totally unsought after. "I have been found, not by those who sought Me." (Isa 65:1). And faith is merely the crediting of God's testimony. Nothing more, nothing less. 
 
Now can someone who believes God's testimony, not know they are a believer? The Bible says if you have a bare belief of the bare truth, you are saved. How can a believer doubt they are saved? Why would they call God a liar? He is The Amen, The Faithful, and True. "Is He a son of man that he should repent?" He does not lie. And he says, "if you confess the Lord Jesus with your mouth, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, YOU WILL BE SAVED."     

Allow me to reiterate a little. This is how a man is converted .... First of all, we start off with an unregenerate man who is totally ignorant of God's existence. Then, one day, when reading or hearing the words of God, the Holy Spirit causes the man to perceive God speaking in them. For the first time, the man will understand. He will read God testifying that everyone who believes the gospel, "IS justified", "IS born of God," "IS saved," and "shall NOT come into judgment". Now, if it was possible for someone to believe the gospel, but doubt their salvation, then that would mean a believer could CALL GOD A LIAR. Because if a believer could doubt their salvation, they would be denying God's promise to save ALL believers. And that's a denial of the gospel. To think, "I believe the gospel, but I am not sure I am saved" is to imply that someone can believe the gospel and not be saved. It's just as heretical as thinking, "God lied when he said all believers are saved."  
 
To all Clarkians -- I think we both would agree that faith is simply to assent to the gospel -- we have A LOT in common. However, perhaps I go further that you do. I say that BECAUSE faith is merely assent, ALL believers must know they are saved. For, how can you assent to the gospel, and not know it? And wouldn't doubting your salvation be calling God a liar? He says over and over again "ALL believers ARE justified from all things". If a believer could doubt their salvation, wouldn't they be calling God a liar in His promise to them? 
 
John 4:14 says that believers never thirst for the waters of eternal life. Now, if a believer could doubt their salvation, wouldn't they be thirsty?

"but whoever may drink of the water which I will give him will not thirst, never! But the water which I will give to him will become a fountain of water in him, springing up into everlasting life." (Jn 4:14) 

James 1:6-7 says that those who "pray" doubting can expect nothing from God. Now, someone doubting their salvation is wavering. Therefore, they can expect nothing from God.

"But if any of you lacks wisdom, let him ask from God, who gives to all freely and with no reproach, and it will be given to him. But let him ask in faith, doubting nothing. For the one who doubts is like a wave of the sea, being driven by wind and being tossed; for do not let that man suppose that he will receive anything from the Lord; he is a double-minded man, not dependable in all his ways." (Jam 1:5-8) 

2 Corinthians 13:5 says that people who are not sure whether or not Christ is in them are unregenerate. Someone doubting their salvation obviously cannot perceive Christ in them.